I’m arguing that the Spanish didn’t “settle” most of Texas at all. They claimed sovereignty without control, and didn’t “settle” it themselves because they were driven out themselves, before they had the ability to displace the native American tribes that were already there.
I’m arguing that the Spanish didn’t “settle” most of Texas at all. They claimed sovereignty without control, and didn’t “settle” it themselves because they were driven out themselves, before they had the ability to displace the native American tribes that were already there.
Not how i read it, might want to rephrase, add a sentence.